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Post by daley111 on Jul 4, 2014 6:37:51 GMT
you cannot be out stumped from a no ball- but when does the batsman actual start to run as he can be run out? If after a no ball the batsman takes a swipe and he is out of his ground for a few seconds, bails are removed by the keeper and he argued that such was the time lapse from the batsman missing the ball to being out of his ground that he should have been given run out?
Am I missing something?
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Post by Acumen on Jul 4, 2014 6:51:54 GMT
Nothing to do with time. There must be clear attempt to run.
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Post by sillypoint on Jul 4, 2014 10:36:31 GMT
As noted by Colin, the issue is whether he has "attempted a run" (Law 39.1.a.iii and also Law 38.2.b.ii). By observing the behaviour of the striker in this circumstance one or both of the umpires should be able to decide whether the striker's intention was to run. It is worth emphasising that it is only the action of the striker himself (or his runner if he has one) which you need to take into account—i.e., NOT any action by the non striker—note that both the Laws referred to above use the pronoun "HE is …" and "HE has …".
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