Post by gwalch on Aug 7, 2007 15:10:45 GMT
Hi
This may seem a noddy question but I had a situation on Sat where the team batting second needed 1 run to win. I called a No Ball but the batsmen hit the ball to the boundary. I signalled No Ball only to the scorers as I thought that was the end of the game and called time, when checking the score books the scorers had added the boundary 4 to the batsmen as well as the 1 run for the No Ball, I explained that the game had been won on the call of No Ball and the 4 had to be disregarded to which they complained that the batter should get it for his average. Thinking back after the weekend I wondered if I was right or not but couldn't find my copy of Tom Smiths to verify and the law seems to imply I am correct, so I thought what the heck, it may make me look stupid posting this but at least I should get the right answer.
This may seem a noddy question but I had a situation on Sat where the team batting second needed 1 run to win. I called a No Ball but the batsmen hit the ball to the boundary. I signalled No Ball only to the scorers as I thought that was the end of the game and called time, when checking the score books the scorers had added the boundary 4 to the batsmen as well as the 1 run for the No Ball, I explained that the game had been won on the call of No Ball and the 4 had to be disregarded to which they complained that the batter should get it for his average. Thinking back after the weekend I wondered if I was right or not but couldn't find my copy of Tom Smiths to verify and the law seems to imply I am correct, so I thought what the heck, it may make me look stupid posting this but at least I should get the right answer.