Post by Roland on Feb 18, 2014 23:15:09 GMT
I would like to seek the opinions of this forum in relation to a situation that I have been asked to adjudicate on. The salient facts are as follows:
- In the first innings of the match, a member of the fielding side left the field after about an hour's play apparently suffering from a migraine
- he returned to the field some time later and was immediately introduced into the bowling attack
- the batsmen protested given the length of time that he had been off the field that he should not be allowed to bowl straight away as he had been off the field for (in their opinion) over 15 minutes
- the umpires called for a drinks break and consulted the scorers to ascertain the exact length of time that the player had been off the field. It appears that the scorers had not recorded the exact time at which the player left the field, and neither had the umpires (clearly an error by the umpires) and so they (the umpires) decided that as they did not have sufficient information to prevent him from bowling he could indeed bowl straight away
- The batsmen (under the instructions of their captain according to the umpires) refused to retake the field after the drinks break when it became apparent that the player in question would indeed bowl the next over
- The umpires and the fielding side took the field and after waiting 3 minutes, declared the game over and awarded the match to the fielding side
I have spared you most of the gory details, suffice to say that tempers were frayed on all sides at this juncture, but the point on which I would like your views is whether indeed the umpires were justified in awarding the match to the fielding side at this point given that they did not firstly inform the captain of the batting side of their intention to do so if he did not instruct the batsmen to retake the field
Grateful for your comments
- In the first innings of the match, a member of the fielding side left the field after about an hour's play apparently suffering from a migraine
- he returned to the field some time later and was immediately introduced into the bowling attack
- the batsmen protested given the length of time that he had been off the field that he should not be allowed to bowl straight away as he had been off the field for (in their opinion) over 15 minutes
- the umpires called for a drinks break and consulted the scorers to ascertain the exact length of time that the player had been off the field. It appears that the scorers had not recorded the exact time at which the player left the field, and neither had the umpires (clearly an error by the umpires) and so they (the umpires) decided that as they did not have sufficient information to prevent him from bowling he could indeed bowl straight away
- The batsmen (under the instructions of their captain according to the umpires) refused to retake the field after the drinks break when it became apparent that the player in question would indeed bowl the next over
- The umpires and the fielding side took the field and after waiting 3 minutes, declared the game over and awarded the match to the fielding side
I have spared you most of the gory details, suffice to say that tempers were frayed on all sides at this juncture, but the point on which I would like your views is whether indeed the umpires were justified in awarding the match to the fielding side at this point given that they did not firstly inform the captain of the batting side of their intention to do so if he did not instruct the batsmen to retake the field
Grateful for your comments