entries in the scorebook

[budster]

Help please - I am an umpire scorer and have been flummoxed by one of my students who has posed the following questions

Bowler bowls 10 overs and the next two balls are invalid deliveries (2 no balls perhaps) and match ends : Shown as 10 overs or 10.0 overs?

Similarly a bowler starts a spell with 2 beamers and under the laws is taken off.
How is this recorded? 0 overs or 0.0 overs?

I am sure tat the scorers know the answer but I am totally unsure
/

any ideas

[missingleg]

Aren't 0 and 0.0 the same thing?

[tippex2]

It's essentially irrelevant whether this is recorded as 0 or 0.0 overs - the fact that the bowler has an entry in the bowling analysis (as opposed to non-bowlers who don't have their name mentioned) indicates that they delivered the ball, but without bowling a legal delivery.

I'd personally incline to recording 0 overs, rather than 0.0, in the same way that I'd record 10 overs rather than 10.0 if the first delivery of a bowler's 11th over was a wide or no-ball which ended the game. However, I certainly can't say that anyone who takes the contrary view is wrong.

[missingleg]

Interestingly, our local league has a 100 over match where the team batting first gets 50 max but overs not used in their innings carry to the 2nd innings.

But, that would create problems if, for example, 49 overs are bowled in the first innings and the final wicket of that innings is then from a wide or no-ball...so still 49 in the book even though the 50th was started. Would that mean the team batting 2nd gets 50 or 51 to chase the score?

[jaybee]

Nov 3, 2015 23:11:45 GMT missingleg said:

Interestingly, our local league has a 100 over match where the team batting first gets 50 max but overs not used in their innings carry to the 2nd innings.

But, that would create problems if, for example, 49 overs are bowled in the first innings and the final wicket of that innings is then from a wide or no-ball...so still 49 in the book even though the 50th was started. Would that mean the team batting 2nd gets 50 or 51 to chase the score?

The league where I umpire has something similar. The actual wording of the rule, after saying that the second innings will be the balance remaining after the 1st innings, is "Any incomplete over in the first innings will be counted as a completed over".
Since the over starts the moment the bowler commences his run-up (etc) it will count as a full over and, in this example the teams would get 50 each.
It seems fair to me - if it went the other way the team batting second would get an extra over to score the runs as a result of bowling a no-ball or wide.